Back in high school, we were taught to integrate
by decomposing it into partial fractions, while
was to be integrated using trigonometric substitution (
). It bothered me how the two methods were so vastly different just because of a change of sign. But hey, who says we can’t integrate
with partial fractions?
![$\begin{aligned}
\int \! \frac{1}{1+x^2} \mathrm{d}x &= \int \! \frac{1}{1-(ix)^2} \mathrm{d}x \\
&= \frac{1}{2} \int \! \frac{1}{1-ix} + \frac{1}{1+ix} \mathrm{d}x \\
&= \frac{1}{2} \left[\frac{1}{-i} \ln{(1-ix)} + \frac{1}{i} \ln{(1+ix)}\right] + C\\
&= \frac{1}{2} \left[i\ln{(1-ix)} - i\ln{(1+ix)}\right] + C\\
&= \frac{i}{2} \ln{\frac{1-ix}{1+ix}} + C
\end{aligned}$](/img/tex/78e9e7bfb8a13abc1515ba4fcbd39fc2.png)
This may look like a strange beast, but it really is
How do we show this? Based on Euler’s formula, we can write
as
. Substitute that into the integrated expression and see for yourself!